This may be a bit late, but...
7starmantis said:
I wasn't trying to misquote you, in fact I wasn't actually refering to you specifically, just using your words in my point. A bit of plagerism if you will.
Ok, just so we're clear on the context I voiced my arguments within.
7starmantis said:
Your correct, it is subject to many interpretations...does that fact alone make all interpretations correct, or only one correct?
Nope.
This gets a little technical, but Paul actually outlines the different 'levels' of interpretation and understanding in some of his letters. Namely, a 'physical' (hylic or sarkic), a 'mental' or 'intellectual' (psychic), and a 'spiritual' (pneumatic). Likewise, he also differentiates between 'uninitiated' and 'initiated' Christians.
While this explanation clearly is dependent somewhat on Pythagoreanism and Platonism, it also has precedent in Judaic tradition.
Midrash is the Jewish tradition of interpreting scriptures and writings of prophets allegorically or symbolically, and carries with it pretty much the same 'levels' of interpretation (literal, moral, and spiritual).
7starmantis said:
I wouldn't personally refer to docetism as a Christian tradition, many would even claim it as heritical. I'm actually kind of confused why you would refer to it as Christian tradition. Christological tendencies don't make it a Christian tradition.
Sorry, but my understanding of 'Christianity' is not limited to 'the guys that won'. Just because Constantine started wiping everybody else does not mean the interpretation he supported have the corner market here.
Part of the problem here is that the school you are declaring to be 'Christianity' here doesn't really seem to have really existed before the middle of the 2nd century. Even then, it had very little jurisdiction outside of Rome. For that matter, true Christian 'doctrine' as it exists today was hammered out in the Council of Nicea around 330 CE. We don't see anything exactly like it before this historic meeting.
By contrast, the 'docetic' schools of 'Christological' thought were very, very widespread by this time --- having roots in Syria, Egypt, Asia Minor, and other places. It is literally an unwieldly thought to assume that all these 'modifications' or 'adaptations' to the original 'Christianity' took place
everywhere in the known world, consequently became the dominant 'Christian' school of thought in all these places, and the only place literalist 'Christian' school retained its 'purity' was Rome.
I'm gonna go with Occam's Razor on this one.
7starmantis said:
In fact, I think in order for a good discussion we need to define Christian or Christianity. While some refer to themselves as christians, others would denounce them as christians. How do we use the term in this debate without defining what it means?
Personally, I simply ignore this sectarian squabbling altogether.
Christianity, to me, is a historical phenomenon. Regardless of what opinion you may or may not have regarding any given denomination or sect's claim to the name, they all have a shared history. The history is what is important here, not some weird sense of ideological 'purity'.
Likewise with other religions. You could easily make the claim that Japan's Pure Land Buddhism deviates wildly from the supposed 'original teachings' of Siddhartha Gautama (assuming he actually existed). A heaven, hell, personal savior, and salvation through grace all seem to not exactly be your standard Buddhist fare. But, the point remains, the Pure Land sect
is a school of Buddhism --- not matter how 'heretical' you claim their position is.
7starmantis said:
There is really no proof to support the belief that the bible (OT) was originally written completely in hebrew or any other language. Most of the earliest descovered portions are however.
Almost all of the Torah in its Hebrew form has been discovered among the Dead Sea Scrolls. This is easily verified.
7starmantis said:
Thats a half statement. Greek works as their source material for New Testament biblical translation, I would agree.
I'm sorry if you're having issues with this, but the overwhelming majority of Christian Churches use the Septugaint for their 'Old Testament'. In the Synoptics, whenever Jesus cites the Torah, he is quoting from the Septugaint. The Septugaint is the background text the authors had in mind here.
Again, there are some exceptions to this --- like the Syrian Peshitta --- but these are the exception to the rule.
7starmantis said:
Thats the problem, we need a deffinition. There are way too many floating around. Personally according to the bible, a christian would be "one who professes belief in Jesus Christ". I dont see the problem with using that deffinition.
The problem is that the overwhelming majority of 'Christians' of the first two centuries CE are excluded by this literalist definition. Justin Martyr is the first 'Christian' we know of that would inequivocably fall into this categorization.
7starmantis said:
Since the bible is what is being debated here, shouldn't we seek to find its definition of Christian?
The Bible has many different interpretations of 'Christian', as Paul himself makes very clear. He distinguishes between 'uninitiated' vs 'initated' and 'psychic' vs 'pneumatic' Christians all the time.
7starmantis said:
We can't make posts, one using a historical definition from the first few centuries, and one using a deffinition of current times. I think you need to look at the root of the word Christian, and its inception and creation (no pun intended). Its original usage had much more of a precise deffinition then it does now, in my opinion.
The problem here is that 'the Bible' as we have it is largely a post-Nicene work. None of the books we have inherited date before the 300's.
Ergo, it is fallacious to claim it unqualifiably represents the 'original usage' of anything.
7starmantis said:
Very good point! Only your now defining christians as a whole as people who believe that "God" has personal opinions about life and that only they know them. I wouldn't call that belief Christian in the biblical deffinition of the word. In fact, any person who claims to know God's opinions would be called out as a false prophet in any group I grew up in.
I actually never attributed this to 'Christians' or to any group in particular, I was simply addressing some theological points that Ray brought up.
7starmantis said:
I agree with you there. I do think however that most "christians" hold faith in that God has control over current (past) events, including the manipulations of the gospel.
So, God's fine with forgery??
Furthermore, God's fine with later apologetics putting into Paul's mouth ideas that he most assuredly taught
against in his authentic letters (i.e., a literal 'physical' resurrection)??
Sorry, not buyin' it.
7starmantis said:
Its pretty widely accepted that God did not physically write the scriptures himself, correct? In the eyes of most "christians" it wouldn't matter who manipulated or rewrote, or changed the text, its still under Gods protection and control. I'm just telling you that is what your going to come up against with that argument.
If that happens, I will say three simple words: Appeal To Authority.
7starmantis said:
Again, your using the label Christian in a way I wouldn't agree with, but even so its not impossible or improbably that christian(my deffinition) groups existed within major centers of Marcionism. In fact, that could very well explain Paul's urgency in his letters.
Like Steve said, Marcionism wasn't even born yet so this claim is rather weak.
Furthermore, it is difficult to make such a claim in light of the fact that
only Gnostics like Marcion and Valentinus even
use Paul in the first few centuries CE. Paul is never mentioned by the likes of Justin Martyr. He is only mentioned by later literalist writers like Irenaeus and Tertullian when the anti-Gnostic 'Pastoral' letters 'magically' appeared in late 2nd and early 3rd centuries to refute docetism.
7starmantis said:
Your asking us to accept your idea or feeling of having no doubt? Not being clearly explained is cause for discrediting the New Testament, the Bible, or Hell itself?
No, I'm pointing out that it was
assumed that the reader already had some idea of what 'hell' was in the first place. Given the Hellenistic context of the New Testament as a whole, it would not be surprising to find a Hellenistic context for 'hell' (hades in the original Greek).
It would also be in keeping with the Platonic and Mithraic philosophy Paul expounds in his letters, too.
7starmantis said:
Again, your appealing to our intelligence to accept your own beliefs. You are saying early Christianity was more influenced by X than by Y. Can you prove that X influenced Christianity more than Y?
People formulate doctrine and dogma, not books. Augustine was one of these people.
Laterz.