Cruentus
Grandmaster
Originally posted by heretic888
I am not going to respond to your first post, Paul, as Jay summed things up fairly nicely.
You can keep on insulting me ("arrogant", "antagonist", "can't read", "annoying", etc) if that makes you feel better. It doesn't really bother me. *shrugs*
For some reason, I am suddenly reminded of Shadowhunter. Hmmmmmmm....... ;p
Shadow hunter.......O.K. ya caught me!
Seriously, I am not just trying to insult you, although in my annoyance, I may have come off as harsh. However, this last post brings some interesting ideas forth more so then your other posts, so I am happy to address your arguements.
Very well.
There are two primary flaws in establishing the 'transmission test' (independent of its connection to the Bible) as a criteria for historical viability.
One) Numerous historically viable texts and documents fail the 'transmission test':
You admitted this within your own post. There are only 20 copies of Tacitus' Annals, 10 copies of Ceasar's triumphs in the Gallic Wars, and 8 copies of Herodotus' History. By the criterion of the 'transmission test', the historical viability of these documents is highly questionable. However, we know from empirical historical evidence (of which the 'transmission test' is not a type) that this is not so. Thus, the reliability of the 'transmission test' on this front alone is brought into question.
These other documents don't exactly "fail" the transmission test, they just don't pass as well as the New Testement documents. What this proves is that we have more evidence to conclude what the origional followers of Jesus believed, namely that he was A. a real person, and B. believed to be the messiah. If these copies varied on these 2 points, they would certianly be up for arguement. Since they don't, then we have to figure the obvious, which is that these 2 points are correct.
This test also concludes that we have more evidence to support what was actually written in the New Testement then in any other ancient document. So, if you doubt that Jesus existed, then you must doubt EVERY other ancient document ever written.
Two) Numerous unhistorical texts and documents successfully pass the 'transmission test':
In ancient China, countless copies of the Tao te Ching were popularly known. The popularity of the Tao te Ching spread even to foreign lands such as Japan and Korea. However, modern historians acknowledge that there is very little possibility that Lao Tzu ever existed and, if he did, the Tao te Ching most certainly wasn't authored by him (as it is claimed to be). As I stated before, numerous copies have been published of popular fables such as Little Red Riding Hood and Uncle Tom. I am quite certain the number of copies of Homer's epics is immense, yet these are still mythological works. Again, the reliability of the 'transmission test' as a viable means of historical inquiry is also brought into question due to the fact that works of fiction can pass its criterion.
I'll say this for the 3rd time, because you don't seem to be getting it. The Transmission Test doesn't prove that the stories weren't made up (there are other tests for that) as much as it DOES prove that these stories weren't altered over time to fit in with some Christian agenda. Part of what has been said by people on this thread is the idea that the Gospel stories are "made up" much later then the time proposed when Jesus was crusified. This transmission test proves that this cannot be true.
Also, Red Riding Hood and other similar examples are not good ones because these are works of fiction. We KNOW that these are works of fiction because we know the authors, we have the originals, so we know the intent. With the Biblical Gospels, letters, and stories, it would seem that the authors intent was not to create a work of fiction. It would seem that contemporaries of these authors, as well as the authors themselves, would not risk death and torture over fiction. So your point, that anything could be a "history" based on this test is wrong. The test isn't claiming to be able to differentiate between fiction and non-fiction, it only claims to be able to piece together what was written in the original texts, and what was believed and being preached at the time.
Additionally, there are many claims concerning the Bible and its connection to the 'transmission test' that don't quite bear out the weight of historical inquiry.
You stated that there are 5,686 Greek manuscripts (which continue to grow with archeological work). Additionally, there are copies of ancient translations of the Bible which include over 10,000 in Latin, over 4,000 in Slavic, over 2,500 in Armenian, over 2,000 in Ethiopian, and hundreds more in other languages. Combining the Greek texts with the translated documents gives the New Testament over 24,000 manuscripts.
However, you neglect to give the time frame in which all these manuscripts were produced (one of the criterion for the 'tranmission test'). You fail to state whether all these manuscripts were produced within a period of 100 years or 1,000 years.
All those manuscripts were dated prior to 800 CE. Many of the Greek, and Eithopian texts, for example, were found prior to 200 (we are talking into the thousands). Other texts, including many that I have mentioned that are considered to be "true," only have hundreds of copies at best. And the first of these copies were found sometimes up to 1000 years or more after the originals are believed to be written.
The first fragments of John are written on papyris, and are found in Eitheopia, dated prior to 100 CE. Hmmm...Eitheopia. Look on a map and tell me how far Eitheopia is from the proposed middle east, and imagine how long it might take to translate an original text to etheiopian on a plant leaf from that far away. Remember now, there is no computer for them to just copy the word document. It had to be carefully hand written.
But, these are just more points that you refuse to see, but the FACT is that there is more evidence supporting the New Testement than any other ancient text, and supporting the FACT that Jesus LIVED, and people BELIEVED.
You also give the impression that any of these copies of the New Testament are in any way historically close to their supposed 'originals'. However, this is not the case. We, in fact, do not have any full versions of the canonically recognized New Testament books prior to the 500's CE. That makes even the oldest of the manuscripts you described to still be over 300 years removed from their 'originals'. A single excerpt or portion dating to the 100's CE is not enough to establish a concrete historical link.
Although what you say is not completely true, I'll bite anyways. Let's say you are correct that the full versions aren't available until 300 years later (which your not, but lets just say so for arguments sake), and all we have is fragments. Well, if the fragments match the originals, and the put together pieces add up to be the New Testement that we have today, then I conceed that these "fragements" are plenty to establish concrete historical links. This only further proves my points.
Thus, based on the above reasoning, I am forced to be skeptical on the New Testament and any historical viability it may have from the 'transmission test' --- which, as I demonstrated above, is itself a dubious means of historical research.
You've demonstrated nothing. Go back to the drawing board.
I'm afraid this is not quite true.
Regardless of the number of copies existing at any given time, the oldest of full New Testament books dates back to the 500's CE (and, rest assured, the number of New Testament manuscripts dating back this far is quite few indeed). That is well over 300 years removed from the 'oral stories' you cite as original sources.
Once again, this doesn't matter. I don't care if the first "full Book" was found in 1999. If the fragments go back as far as the first century, which they do, and all the fragements add up to our first New Testement full texts, which they do, then we can figure that these are fairly accurate. Remember, for some ancient texts we don't have existing copies until 1000 years after the fact, yet these are not discredited in the same manner as the New Testement.
In addition, there is no historical proof whatsoever that the New Testament books we have now are even dependent on any sort of first century 'oral tradition' --- there is indeed the possibility that they are all mid-to-late 2nd century creations. The first time the Synoptics (Matthew, Mark, Luke, John) are mentioned by name is with Irenaeus (circa 170 CE), and we still don't know if the Synoptics he refers to are identical (or even similar) to the copies we have now. The first time the Pauline epistles are mentioned is with Marcion (circa 140 CE), and his versions are in a quite different form than the versions we have now.
Well...as I have maintained, there is planty of evidence "whatsoever" The fact that our earliest copies of the Gospels are generally accepted to be between 70-110 CE is plenty of evidence (and actually our first copies are believed more so as follows: Mark 70s, Luke and Matthew 80's, and John 90's - but there are good conjectures that perhaps John came as late as 110, where we get the idea that our 1st copies were found between 70-110). THis idea points to the probability that something had to have been actually written prior to these dates, for these are copies. Considering this, then these stories would have been told and written during the time when the people who witnessed these events were still alive, and could dispute any incorrect information. This is where the oral tradition comes into play. Really, this happends to a degree today. If a news story is published that has false information, all the eyewitnesses can go to another reporter and report the truth. If a News reporter today were to report on President Bush as a real person, but it becomes common knowledge that President Bush doesn't actually exist, and is a fabrication created by Fox News, Other media sources could report this using other opinions and eyewitness accounts to what is really going on. We don't have any stories from the 1st or 2nd centuries claiming that Jesus was a fabrication by the Christians. So YOU are the one who has nothing to support this great Christian consperacy.
Now, are there other "possabilities," yes. Hey, it is possible that your parents aren't your real parents, and you were really bought by Gypsies. It is possible that you were really a girl at one time, but your parents wanted a boy so you went through a sex change before you could remember. Hey anything is possible. However, what is possible, and what is likely are 2 entirely different things.
Perhaps. But when the discrepancies are so extreme that they actually record the same event as taking place in two completely different locations (as with Jesus' supposed resurrection), then you have a problem.
As I said, no problems here. The discrepencies you claim aren't hard contradictions; they don't jeprodize the idea that Jesus was a real person who people believed was the Messiah.
For a text that, at its earliest, dates back to the 500's CE, you sure seem to be making an interesting presumption concerning the author's intentions (considering he/she never wrote anything to clarify this point).
This is wrong. The authors intentions are plainly stated within the Gospels themselves, and they imperically say that they are giving testemony to "real" events. Here is just one example from John:
"It is this disciple who testifies to these things and has written them, and we know that his testimony is true.
There are also many other things that Jesus did, but if these were to be described individually, I do not think the whole world would contain the books that would be written." John 21:24-25
Also, this was not written in the dialect of the "ancient Middle Eastern world". It is written in the Greek language, where the distinctions between "father" and "brother" and so on are more concrete. I think the contradition is pretty straightforward.
Matthew 1:16 states: "Jacob was the father of Joseph the husband of Mary, by whom Jesus was born, who is called the Messiah."
Luke 3:23 states: "When He began His ministry, Jesus Himself was about thirty years of age, being, as was supposed, the son of Joseph, the son of Eli"
According to the Synoptics, Joseph has two fathers: Jacob and Eli. This, to me, is a little screwy.
I maintain that the distinction was not CLEARLY made with titles such as father or brother, for one. Just because you have a different OPINION, that doesn't make it true. Secondly, Dennis Mahon linked to a decent site that explains the circumstance better then I am willing too.
Key words here: "according to Christian theology." Just because Christians of later centuries project their theology onto the New Testamental books does not change what was written by at least the 500's.
In no way was this how the Hebrews saw the situation, nor is it how they see it now. Born of the "seed of David" is a fairly straightforward description. Either, Jesus was born of the seed of David or he was born of a virgin. You can't have both.
It is incidental in both the Christian and Hebrew Circumstance. I explained why it was incidental in the Christian sense, which is what matter most in this case because the Hebrews who decided Jesus was the Messiah bacame Christian immediately at that point. But even in the hebrew sense, Mary was also understood to be a decendant of David, removed by many generations.
I must admit... you do have a point here.
However, it is widely known among modern researchers that there was no census during Herod's reign, nor was there any attempted "slaughter of innocents". Neither Philo nor Josephus make any mention of either of these events.
In addition, the primary event itself, the trial and execution of Jesus, is completely absent from the Roman records. It is also absent of any historian's mention until around 115 CE (over 80 years after the event in question) and even these 'historical mentions' are of an incredibly dubious nature (Tacitus' supposed reference to Jesus and his record of Nero's persecution of the Christians, for example, is a forgery of the Middle Ages).Well, the idea that the Romans didn't attempt to slaughter the innocent is completely false. You'll have to bring forth some evidence supporting this false idea, because most historians know that both Christians and Jews alike were slaughtered by Romans form time to time, particularly during the Roman/Jewish war. Plus, you have no evidence that the entire history of Tacitus is a forgery, either.
I will admit that some of the events of the New Testament may have historical viability. Of course, this brings into question as to when the New Testament books were actually written (its not hard to be historically accurate when you have hindsight). In addition, other events of the New Testament (including the existence and execution of Jesus) have no reliable external sources to corroborate their historical viability.
First, I can't say that I know all the nuances and customs of America from even 100 years ago. I'd have to go to the library and do some reasearch to fabricate something and make it look like it was written 100 years ago. Problem is, there weren't libraries, or printing presses. Mostly only the Government and rich had scribes who could keep track of history, yet how would early christians even get access to this material? So, I believe that when considering the facts, hindsite is NOT 20-20 in this regard. So, the Gospels must have been accurate depictions of the eyewittness testamonies and stories of that time period.
Again..."no reliable external source." Come-on, dude, I went over this once already. Just revert ot my previous posts to provide an explaination for this one.
I actually gave evidence to support my claims, you musta just overlooked it.
Well...no you didn't, otherwise I would have had some points to address. Regardless, lets see what points you have now...
There are numerous reasons to doubt the early (70-110 CE) dating of the Synoptics:
One) There is no extant version of any of the Synoptics that dates prior to the 500's CE. Thus, we have no reason to conclude that the Synoptics we possess are even remotely similar in content to the ones mentioned by individuals such as Irenaeus. They may indeed be alike in name only.
I don't believe your dates are accurate, again, but this doesn't matter...I covered this point above.
Two) The first time in recorded history that the Synoptics are mentioned by name is with Irenaeus (circa 175 CE). Justin Martyr, writing only one generation earlier, fails to mention even one of their names a single time. In addition, Irenaeus is quite enthusiastic in his defense of these Synoptics as the "true canon" --- indicating the idea of defending these four exclusively was something of a new and novel idea at the time.
The idea of defending these 4 exclusively was novel, I will agree. But this is because it was believed by Irenaus and his contemporaries that these 4 fit in historacally and theologically better into the Christan ideas then the other accounts. And Irenaus was pretty smart. We find today that in 2003 that the 4 Gospels are not only the earliest, but have the most supporting evidence, and are most likely to contain eyewitness accounts then the other 20 or so.
Three) The Gospel of Luke (and possibly some of the other Synoptics) has been demonstrated to be dependent on the Gospel of Marcion (circa 140 CE). The claim of Tertullian (circa 200 CE) was that Marcion had edited Luke. However, this does not bear the weight of logic; there are numerous verses within Luke that would indeed have benefitted Marcion's philosophical position (of docetism), and there are numerous verses in his Gospel of the Lord that indeed do not benefit his philosophical position.
These are just hypothesies. If it is true what historians are saying regarding Luke predating 140 CE (when you claim Marcion Gospel was written) then why can't it be that the Marcion Gospel was dependent on Luke. How can we accept Tertullians claim better then anyone elses? This evidence is shakey at best.
Four) St Jerome (circa 320 CE) has admitted that the Gospel of Luke is of a very late date, written after other Gospels known to have first been published in 160 CE. He also admits that the Theophilus mentioned in Luke was in fact the Bishop of Antioch during the 170's CE.
You'll have to show me evidence where Jerome has said what you claim, first of all, for me to believe it. Second of all, evidence today proves this to be false, even if Jerome did in fact say what you claim. Jerome could have been wrong, ya know.
Five) Irenaeus has admitted that the Gospel of John was written to repudiate the writings of the gnostic Cerinthus. Cerinthus was active during the 140's CE.
No...the Gospel of John repudiates the writings of the gnostic Cerinthus. This doesn't mean that was the purpose for writing it, how could it be when Johns Gospel predates Cerinthus?
Six) Both the Gospel of Luke and the Gospel of Matthew contain verses whose content deals with the hierarchical system first being developed within Rome during the 170's CE.
You'll have to elaborate on this point a bit more. Which verses, which hierarchical system? I can't take this point on face value, but I would hazard to guess that it is only being interpreted to "deal" with a hierarchical system of 170, when it isn;t the case.
Seven) Certain excerpts from our Gospel of Mark (namely, the chronological order of Jesus' teaching at Taberbaum) are directly derived and dependent on the Gospel of Luke --- indicating our Luke has historical precedence. As Luke has been demonstrated to be derived from Marcion, this indicates both Luke and Mark were written within the latter half of the 2nd century (150-200 CE).
This is not correct; historians note mark as the first Gospel to have been written. Prove them wrong, and then we can explore this point.
Eight) There have been studies demonstrating Luke may also be partially dependent on the writings of Josephus (circa 95 CE).
Again, how do we know that these studies are any more credible then the ones that make different claims?
There's your evidence.
Thank you! Now we are having a discussion. Although I don't agree with much of your evidence, at least we have SOMETHING to work with.
The supposed "historical references to Jesus" that are so often bandied around date to about 115 CE. This includes Tacitus, Suetonius, Pliny the Younger, etc. Mind you, this does not mean all (or even any) of these references actually refers to Jesus or are even authentic (non-forged), but these are their supposed dates nonethless.
The only historical source to supposedly refer to Jesus before this timeframe is Josephus (95 CE), and even the authenticity of his excerpts (including the James reference) are questioned by many.
Actually, that's not what I'm talking about at all.
There were literally hundreds of Christian gospels and epistles during the later half of the 2nd century, and the Synoptics were by no means the most well-known or popular of them (only Irenaeus and Tertullian, both in Rome, seem to have any faith in them). There is in fact no reason to conclude that the Synoptics are any more authentic than any of these other Gospels (especially considering we have no extant form of the Synoptics prior to the 500's CE and they are never mentioned by name until the 170's CE).
Laterz.
O.K...I am not sure what the point here in the beginning of the quote, but lets explore your point at the end. You say there are 100's of gospels. I will agree that there are quite a few. Many of these Gospels may not help the "Christian" premise of JEsus' divinity, I will admit. However, that isn't what we are discussing here. We are disputing whether or not Jesus existed as a real person, or was he "made up." With hundereds of Gospels and accounts, and none of them saying that "Jesus was a made up character," then I would have to conclude that he was as these accounts say, A REAL PERSON. Right?
Now, the main idea, or thing that I think we can learn here is this: Your evidence that Jesus did not exist is NO MORE compelling then my evidence that he did exist, at the very least. I would of course say that my evidence is more compelling, but these are matters of opinion, and I will let the MT readers decide what to believe for themselves. However, you came on here with this auro of superior knowledge, as if you have some kind of evidence or proof that blows conventional ideas out of the water. I think that you have proven that your evidence is at best, no better then the evidence against your claims. So, we remain at a standstill. If I believe in "my evidence " on faith and not imperical fact, as you and some others here have contested, then the same is true for you; you believe in your evidence on faith and not imperical fact as well. So it appears we are at a standstill; I cannot force you to go against your "faith" based idea that Jesus never existed.
Also...I wanted to thank you for your last post. It didn't have that "arrogence" I was describing earlier, and you brought more ideas and evidence to the table for us to explore. This made for a much better conversation then what was going on in the beginning. And again, I apologize for getting fusterated there for awhile.
Have a good one...
PAUL