Because a more meaningful and non-arbitrary set of guiding morality can be developed. One that doesn't rely on Authority without justification. Perhaps in any one instance, it will not be a better barometer. Overall though, it has the potential to be much greater.
Two things with this.
One, we may have to disagree on whether reason would be a better barometer. I suppose that if you live in a vacuum wherein logic is the only thing that one uses to make decisions, then you may be right. But people
always infuse certain aspects into their reasoning, such as cultural norms, emotions, etc. Having that understanding, perfect reasoning can never exist. It will always be biased. Until the point where we evolve into Vulcans, that is.
The bolded part is really what I was trying to emphasize, however. There are times when religion may be better, or reason may be better. It all depends on what you are trying to address. I love reasoning with people and showing them how much smarter I am then them. :boing2:
There are many non-arbitrary standards one could develop such a standard by. Utilitarianism, for instance. Of course, I suppose you could claim a desire to avoid harm, or to produce the greatest good is in itself arbitrary, but given the clear preferences of billions of people and the overwhelming evidence that pain, happiness, fear and the like are all real, it basically becomes solipsism.
It's not just that. Even if the standard is avoiding harm, for instance, one would have to determine what harm is. As expressed by my previous example, is it more harmful to spank a child for their wrongdoing, or spare the rod, so to speak.
What is the greatest good? Is it the greatest good that I illegally search a gangster's car that a reliable informant told me contains assault weapons which he is going to use to kill someone? Or is following the rule of law regarding search and seizures better?
The fact of the matter is is that subject to interpretation, both can produce "good" results, and reasonable people can disagree over the sound logic and reasoning behind their approaches.
That answers nothing. God's love has nothing to do with whether his love as a moral good or moral guide is based on his own subjective desires, or if love is good independent of God's desires.
It addresses your comment. I wasn't arguing about god's love being moral or not. I was addressing the comment regarding Socrates' central question to be asked of all religions. The question does not apply to all religions.
Or perhaps I misunderstood your intent in posting it.
All religions offer proscriptions on behavior, and a claim as to what is moral behavior. If those religions use the supernatural as an explanation for this morality, then the question is valid.
That would be to make the argument that it is the primary intent of the gods of various religious is to be loved by man or to love man. That's just not true. For instance, Shintoism does not demand the love of an all-powerful god. Therefore the question is invalid.
If those religions do not use the supernatural as an explanation for anything, then they probably aren't religions.
Yes, but supernatural does not have to necessarily include a god. Therefore, you can have a religion without a god, and therefore, once again, Socrates' question is irrelevant. Hinduism, Jainism, Buddhism. These are all non-theistic religions that do not depend on love to or from a god.
So certain behaviors are moral because and only because God will punish you if you do not obey?
If that is how you frame the debate, then so be it. But I don't.
If you are refering to the Christian religion (as this is the only theistic religion that I can claim to have any detailed knowledge of), you can engage is behavior that is moral by God's standards and still not be "saved". Not only that, but God recognizes that all men are sinful, and fall short of God's demands, but are still "rewarded" with heaven.
Hence, it is not moral behavior which is the issue, but one's belief in God. One will choose to behave in a moral fashion if one believes in God, but nothing says that only those who believe in God can act morally.
What does morality even mean in such a context?
If you mean the context of "I make the rules of the universe and all things exist based on my will alone, even you," then it means everything.
If certain Bibles are to be believed, God once commanded Abraham to kill his son in God's honor. Murder thus becomes moral because God says so?
If God, the objective ruler of all existance, tells you to kill someone, then is it murder, which is a legal definition.
Genocide of the Canaanites becomes moral because God says so? Wholesale rape of the Canaanite women becomes moral because God says so?
If God, the objective ruler of all existance, tells you to kill someone, then is it murder, which is a legal definition? As one Christian apologist has said: "Does not the potter have the right over the clay, to make some vessels for noble uses and some for profane uses? Who are you, O man, to talk back to God?
And where do you get your information regarding the rape of Canaanite women? It's certainly not in the Bibles I have read.
If so, then all of us here are more moral than God.
That is a matter of perspective. If God is indeed real and makes up all the rules, then no, we are not.
This is exactly what Socrates was getting at. Arbitrary desires are one answer to the question, and not a very satisfying one.
I don't get how asking about the nature of the relationship between love and god reflects an arbitrary desire, but then I have not read the entire context of the text.