PAUL said:
Howardr,
I am confused on the property issue. 1st off, I should have never said property in my post, because my personal belief is to give up your wallet, car, or flee you home before using deadly force. "Things" can be recovered, while lives can't be.
But, I am curious about the legal portion of defending ones property. I thought if someone were to break into my home, I could shoot them? I thought that americans have the right to defend our property? I realize that you sited a case law, and it looks federal to me, but how does this fit in with the above? Are there other case laws to counter this (as there often are)? I am curious about this issue now.
If you can refer me to a source, or answer with good evidence, I'd like to hear what you know.
Thanks,
PAUL
Well, let's see...
First, the little that I provided previously on this issue (i.e., the basic elements of self-defense) came from notes from a first-year Crim Law class taught by a former Los Angeles prosecutor. I should note, however, that she did not spend a considerable amount of time on self-defense (at least not as much as I would have liked).
The professor stated categorically that under the law defense of property never justified the use of deadly force. (Deadly force may be used in the defense of property only if it is in conjunction with another privileged use of force.) I found the case and quote about defense of property in Dressler's Criminal Law (2nd ed.). The casebook contains other cases covering self-defense, but the one I quoted was used to elucidate the general principles of self-defense as found in contemporary American jurisprudence.
Second, note that I specified above -
deadly force. You're combining two distinct concepts. You talk about both using deadly force (e.g., shooting) to defend property and also in the next sentence about the right to defend property. Actually, the essential point and crucial distinction is that while you don't have a right to use
deadly force to defend property, you can use
nondeadly force to defend both personal and real property in your possession. Note: you can use deadly force to prevent the commission of a crime, if the crime is a "dangerous felony" involving risk to human life (e.g., robbery, arson, burglary of a dwelling, etc.).
The BARBRI bar review for Crim Law also verifies these principles. I'd be happy to give you some additional case citations, if that's what you're looking for.
Finally, I'd like to clarify the issue about the use of deadly force in the home. The issue is not that you have the right to use deadly force (remember we already said that you could use nondeadly force in this situation, but that's not what we are considering) to defend your property (your home), but that you do not have a requirement to
retreat when you are in your home, if you meet all the elements granting a self-defense justification, before you employ deadly force.
So, if you wake up in the middle of the night to the sound of breaking glass, get out of bed, grab your shotgun and see a drooling escapee from the local mental hospital in your living room walking towards you armed with a butcher knife, you don't have to run - you can shoot the intruder. Remember: the majority of states have no duty to retreat if you meet the elements of self-defense, but even if you are in a state with a duty to retreat, you wouldn't have to in this case because you are in your own home. This is called the Castle Doctrine. It's not a defense of property per se because it only arises in regard to the duty to retreat.
Now imagine the same scenario but when you walk into the living room you see the maniac has broken both arms and a leg when he fell in a drug induced stupor through your window. He's essentially immobile and no threat and so you wouldn't be justified in shooting him, even though he has trespassed on your property.
I hope this helps. Please feel free to continue the conversation, if it still interests you. Personally, I find the subject fascinating.