arnisador said:
My understanding is that, overwhelmingly, marriage in the sense of a social contract has been heterosexual, allowing in many cases for multiple spouses (typically, multiple wives). I don't think there are extensive examples of legalized homosexual marriage--even the Romans married women, then had affairs with men.
Oh, but anthropologists (apparently) disagree...or something.
You see, in trying to define marriage over the last 100 years, anthropologists concluded that marriage is difficult, maybe even impossible to define. As a result, anything we decide marriage is...marriage is. Heretic888 made the point that we should defer to the anthropologist in this decision making process.
Of course, to arrive at the conclusion, anthropologists started with the faulty assumption that the definition of the word marriage has to be constructed around a universal definition of marriage that applies in every culture (even though we don't live in every culture), and that ANY example contrary to the predominant view is enough to contradict the standard definition. And, therefore, ANY definition of marriage are as applicable as any other.
In other words, to the view of an anthropologist, if we can find even ONE exception, anywhere, then there can be no universal definition of 'marriage'. A dubious position at best. 'We can't define it, so it can't be defined'.....
And, really, how is that ANY different than my point that the core of this argument is altering the very definition of the words themselves. That we have now concluded that the words are meaningless, and, therefore open for 'redefining' is ONLY evidence at the cleaverness of the argument in destroying the definition.
But, here's where the Gordian knot gets cut...We aren't defining marriage for ALL cultures, we're defining it for OUR culture, and it is clear how OUR culture has defined marriage. Therefore, an anthropologists statement that marriage can't be defined...anthropologically, is irrelavent, because we aren't looking for a universal definition. We are looking for a culture definition, which has been made clear.
It would be no different if an anthropologist said there were no culture or political system superior to any other. That doesn't mean that they are or are not, it merely means the methods by which anthropologists judge systems is based on a preconceived notion that a scientist should maintain 'objectivity', or, more to the point, should not make value judgements. That's fine in the research field of cultural anthropology, but that doesn't translate in the 'real world', as anthropology is research and analysis of different cultures and how they compare, objectively.
Value judgements are necessary in the real world, even if they considered an error in anthropology. The definition about what does and does not constitute marriage is a value judgement. As anthropologists are not in the business of making value judgement, that pretty much negates their decision in the matter.
What is really interesting, however, is that anthropologists tend to argue that there is no objective value system, as many different peoples hold many different moral positions. As such, it is impossible to determine a universal system of values or morals (see discussion going on a couple forums over). That's all fine and well, but then, in the vacuum created by the moral relativism, many then seek to replace the previous moral position (which they worked so hard to destroy by stating that there was no absolute moral system) with a new value system, that they claim is 'absolutely moral' (see references to universal human rights).
Now, which is it, Heretic, is there or is there not a universal value system? If there isn't, then how is NOT allowing homosexuals marriage licenses a violation of a value system that, by definition, cannot exit universally?
The Boasian influence on anthropology has been that much anthropology becomes activist in nature. Moreover, the two front assault seems to be
A) Redefine terms by stating that anthropology has proven that there is no universal values (as, the examination of various cultures show many different value systems) A statement that may be true, but then it's followed up with
B) There really is a universal value system, that we vaguely refer to under the heading 'Human Rights'. (Kind of a contradiction of the first statement, don't you think).
It's really this contradiction that confuses me. Why would we believe simultaneously that no value system is superior to another, and then fight so hard to replace one value system with another?
Ultimately, both aspects of that argument cannot be correct, as they are contradictory. Either there is no universally applicable value system, or there IS, and the arguer simply believes it's his/hers. However, both positions cannot simultaneously be true.
Ultimately I might be inclined to agree with certain conclusions addressed in this forum. However, i'm concerned when I see obvious contradictions such as illustrated above. Perhaps someone could clarify this for me.