ballen0351
Sr. Grandmaster
- Joined
- Dec 25, 2010
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Actually, it does. Which is what Article IV, section 1 & Amendment 10 cover, in part.
Alabama can't have a law denying blacks the ability to marry.
So why can they have a law doing that to gays?
Can they do that to retards?
They can do it to gays until the court says they cant. The feds passed a law signed by Clinton they says no state must recognize a gay marriage of another state. I dont see a difference but the feds do and until the courts rule the law is valid.