M
MisterMike
Guest
rmcrobertson said:1. Nope. The idea that when a pregnant woman is attacked, and loses the baby, there's been a murder is based on, "intent," in exactly the same way: she has not yet delivered, and therefore she only has a POTENTIAL child, so what matters is that she intended to have a child.
2. It's not nearly as far afield as when this hypothetical gets generated--as it typically does--as part of a general strategy for making abortion illegal, or (in this case) establishing the concept that abortion and murder are the same things.
In other words, both examples endow the couple with a sort of, "honorary," child--the one because of their plans, the other because of a pregnancy that has not yet come to term. In fact, the "anti-abortion," argument rests on precisely the same idea used to underpin the, "pro-choice:" that a woman, backed up by society, has made a choice, and that some criminal has taken that choice away from her.
But in any case, these cases only started appearing when various prosecutors, either because of their personal beliefs or because of political pressures, started looking for ways to chip away at Roe v. Wade. That was the explicit, open, avowed point, and to treat these cases as simple theory is to ignore actual reality and history.
No, she intended to have a baby. And depending on the term of the pregnancy, she does have a baby inside of her.
A not too far fetched example: Perhaps some middle eastern guy plans on having 20 kids and intends for each of those to have 20 kids, but his wife's blown up in a suicide bomb attack, can he claim 20 X 20 murders?
So no, planning a baby and then gettin killed tain't the same as carrying a baby and gettin killed.
I like how the Pro Choice folk go right to denying there is a "child" inside. As if not using the term baby somehow makes killing it less of a tragedy.
But this is from the same crowd who thinks at the other end of this life, when you're too old to care for yourself again, you should be murdered then too.