Shogun
Master Black Belt
Yes. The Japanese language is made up of syllables. each set of two or three letters (usually) represents a character. Also, vowels make up characters.also speak a bit of Japanese. I am taking my 4th year in about a month. I was using romaji, the standard system for writing out the Japanese syllables in the english alphabet (ie:tienqi would actually be tenki). In kime, ki, both letters representing the one hiragana character,all on its own represents the same ki that we have been discussing here. I have not learned a lot of kanji however. But in the word of kime, I beleive it is the same. Although i could be wrong...
kime is a karate term for the final focus and moment of tension at the end of the technique. <--simplified description, but I'm too tired to write a paragraph.
You misunderstood me. and the ignorant part is assuming I am monolingual. I speak some japanese, brazillian portuguese, and Koyukon. The Japanese word for inertia is Daryoku. it means spur of the moment/inertia. What I meant by Ki and inertia being one in the same, without being the same is that while inertia and Ki are different, they are words that work on two separate levels while having a common bond. Inertia, as muaythaifreak mentioned, is accepted everwhere due to its scientific nature. Ki is an Asian term, that is usually only accepted in asia, and in certain people in the west, due to its more religious nature. in truth, they really shouldnt be used in the same context, becasue although, IMO, they are related, they are NOT the same (as I posted) because of the separation of science and religion. Ki is life force. but it can be USED as inertia. limiting Ki's potential to simply internal energy is also ignorant. I may not know much about inertia, but I know about Ki. the question is, how can you claim to know about something while refusing its existence?So you imply that the Japanese and Chinese are/were unable to comprehend the idea of "a property of matter by which it remains at rest or in uniform motion in the same straight line unless acted upon by some external force?" That's terribly arrogant, isn't it? Especially given that the Chinese culture alone has over 5000 years of continuous recorded history?
This is a problem that I have soapboxed about on MT before... Monolingual Anglophones attempting to make use of foreign language terms without possessing a real understanding of a) the word's real meaning, b) the cultural context of the word, or c) the relevance the word has to the use the aforementioned Anglophone is attempting to assign it.
cheers,
Kyle Elliott