But now, my friend, we're arguing semantics. You're using relative income to describe who is poor and who isn't. I make good money, but I live in California. If I were to make the same amount in say, Iowa, I would live in a 4,000 square foot house on 10 acres. As it is, I can barely afford my 2500 sq. ft. house on a postage stamp lot. The person who makes what I make in Iowa would be considered wealthy, in California, I'm upper middle class. How does that fit in with your hypothesis? To use your example, yes, there's a tremendous difference between $50,000 and a million, or a billion but what about the difference between $50,000 and $90,000? The former is middle class, the latter is upper class. This does not take regional cost of living into account, at all.
By arguing that the middle class is not really middle class when compared to those at the top of the heap, you are changing the accepted definitions of socioeconomic status to fit your argument. The middle class is the middle class. Just because they don't have as much money as the wealthy doesn't suddenly make them poor.
Between 2001 and 2004, the poverty rate has increased from 11.3% to 12.7%. This is expected following a recession. Since 1959, when poverty rates were first being gathered, the nation's poverty rate has decreased by 43%. Yes, I do agree that there is income inequality but the numbers aren't as dire as those who want to take more of my money and give it to someone else would like us to think they are.