punisher73
Senior Master
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- Mar 20, 2004
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- #21
I'm saying nothing about American pronounciations, when I asked on the MMA thread why Americans can't pronounce Bisping people got offended
Because it was a gross misrepresentation. I'm a midwestern American, and I have always pronounced it with the "biss" phonetic.
Countries in general pronounce things differntly than the host countries pronunciation anyways (kind of the point of the thread). For example, in America we pronounce many places with American phonetics and not spanish ones. So, if I pronounce the country "Chile" we say "chill-ee" and not "chee-lay" as you would in spanish. Is this wrong? It's a different language. In England, do you stress the spanish pronunciation of all spanish names, or other names that can have more than one pronunciation depending on the host country?